9 responses

  1. Anonymous

    Ladbrokes has for the Bayern Munich vs Porto ( 21/4/15) correct score 0-0 18/1, yet they have under 0.5 11/1; if these are considered the same things in terms of a result, how come the odds for one is higher

    • ian

      Was either a mistake on their part or you were looking at something else. Trust me, under 0.5 goals means 0-0, so backing that and backing correct score 0-0 should be the exact same odds unless you looked at both at different times of the game or something.

      It’s the same as backing 0-0, 1-0 and 0-1, dutching all these 3 results together will give you the exact odds as if you were to back under 1.5 goals, all same bets just different ways for people to do them.

      In fact the majority of bets offered are silly because they can be replicated in other ways… No real need for a lot of them but the bookmakers of course like to offer the punters all different ways to lose their money :)

  2. rylo

    Can you not manipulate this 0.5 goals bet by using one of the bookmakers who offer your money back if game is a boring 0-0. Like say I use a money back bookie for backing over 0.5 goals, if it does not win I get my money back because it was a boring 0-0… LOL probably got that completely wrong as doubt there is a win win scenario.

    • gareth

      Yeah that will never work. The money back for a boring 0-0 game is only for people who have placed bets on other correct scores. Trust me, you’ll never find a loophole when it comes to bookmakers offers :)

  3. markybhoy

    Why do bookmakers have so many different bets for things which mean the exact same thing? For example in this case, backing under 0.5 goals is the same as just backing 0-0, so why even have it.

    I love when friends tell me they are trialling a system, and then they explain it, and usually it’s something like, well, firstly I am backing 0-0, 1-0. 0-1 etc and I just say or you could do one bet for this part and back under 1.5 goals, means same thing lol

  4. Anonymous

    I do not understand why we have a under 0.5 goals bet then, if it equals backing correct score 0-0, what the hell is the point in this, can’t things be kept simple??

    • WhereWhyWhen.com

      It most likely is because there is a purpose for over 0.5 goals, so if having that, might as well have the under 0.5 goals. Not just this though, if you look at lots of bets, more than one mean the same, its just the way it is. For example you might see a special bet that is backing correct score 0-0, 1-0 and 0-1, then backing under 1.5 goals equals the same thing also.

  5. Ryan

    I back over 0.5 goals in leagues where goals are scored, usually the English leagues are best.

    Avoid matches where a team is prone to not concede a lot of goals, or score loads, such as Stoke City.

    I go for games where one side is very attacking such as Tottenham, and the other side are capable of losing goals, and scoring also, such as Aston Villa or someone.

    The best odds are at over 2.5 goals though, not much value with over 0.5 goals.

    • Christopher

      Avoid derby matches also with over 0.5, as a lot of these start out very cagey with both teams weighing each other up, and a lot of derbies do end up being a 0-0 draw.

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